The Lion, The Witch and The Wardrobe opens in theaters today. God arranged for an ice storm to strike Roanoke forcing all schools to close for the day. This ought to ensure packed crowds of kids at the 10 am, 1 pm, 2 pm showings at the Carmike 10.
The release of this movie, which is based on the , has generated a lot of yammering in the media and blogosphere. My bloggy friend Kevin, who leans left, forwarded me a link to an article in Salon about the movie. The subtitle to the article reads, "The religious right is hyping "The Chronicles of Narnia." But just how Christian is C.S. Lewis' masterpiece?"
The article, written by Laura Miller, bemoans the fact that the religious right is getting all giddy over the film. Miller felt "betrayed" when she discovered the Christian meaning behind the story.
Miller writes, "I can't recall who first spoiled my intoxicating fantasies of escape to Narnia by explaining to me that Lewis was peddling the same stuff as dreary old Sunday school, but I suspect I read it somewhere -- and I know it didn't happen until I was about 13. I avoided Lewis' books for years after discovering this "betrayal," but eventually I returned to them. Learning to appreciate a literary work's qualities when you disagree with it."
I had to laugh out loud when I read that. Lewis was a brilliant man. He knew how to incarnate truth and beauty into the captivating medium of a riveting narrative. Think about it. I could sit down and lecture to you about the notion of justification, expiation and substitionary atonement. Falling asleep yet? I am getting drowsy just typing those words. Or, we could read about Edmund, Aslan and the stone table. Tough choice? Get real.
The point came home to me as I opened my email this morning. I received a letter from our friends, Larry and Sandy Rockwell, who are ministering to the Quechua Indians in the Andes mountains of South America. This was Larry's prayer request.
"If you have never read I would highly recommend it. It not only shares some of the things new missionaries have to face but also tells how those missionaries were able to find a connection between the tribal people who did not trust anyone and bring them to trust the only “Peace Child” that is fully trustworthy. We are looking for “clues” like these in the lives of the Quechua."
Larry gets it. He is a missionary. He is an ambassador. He is trying to communicate with a culture of people who live in the Andes mountains of South America. He is searching for a way to incarnate truth in a medium that is meaningful to the Quechua Indians. Terms like expiation bounce off the Quechuans like a hard rain on steep tin roof. Larry is looking for the "peace child" story that will incarnate truth and gain traction with these peaceful tribal people.
C.S. Lewis is just another version of Larry Rockwell and Don Richardson. He was an ambassador who knew how to communicate to a culture in a timeless way in a language they could understand. Even the naysayers, like Laura Miller of Salon magazine, find themselves irresistibly drawn to Lewis' imagination. Like it or not, the core message of the gospel is now seeded in their imagination too.
Brilliant. Simply brilliant.
Love it and can't wait to see the movie. I remember the first time I read LWW and I was astounded a the gripping nature of Aslan's sacrifice! The book literally drove me to my knees in tears before the One who sacrificed Himself for me...
Nobody who teaches or who understands literature can get around the power, depth, clarity, and, yes, conviction that pervades his work. I never thought that I would see the day that Naria found its way to the silver screen..."oh, too Christian."
Ms. Miller, I am not "giddy" over the film, I am giddy about having the opportunity to chat with my friends about the movie, then perhaps chatting about the spiritual side of life as we consider sacrifical and resurrection themes. BTW, I did it with LOTR movies as well. Yes, I know Tolkein was not as overt with his faith in LOTR as Lewis was in CON, but his worldview pervades the pages as well as in his personal writings. Oh to be a fly on the wall when the two of them were having dinner together!
That, my friends, is what Heaven is for...endless dinner parties with our brothers and sisters and Lord...and no one has to go home! We will be home!
Please post movie reviews when you get done at the cinema!
Later.
Posted by: BWB | December 09, 2005 at 09:54
Jeff
Glad you ejoyed the article, but I think you drew a debatable conclusion from it. First, notice that she had to be told about the allegory -- she didn't make the connection on her own, and therefor would be no more receptive to the Gospels before she read the books. The two are completely unrelated in her mind. Even worse, they coudl diminish the Bible, equating it with a fairy story that she knows is made up.
Second, she makes an interesting case that Lewis was not actually writing a Christian allegory but an allegory for a Christian heresy:
"In essence, Goldthwaite argues that Lewis uses Narnia as a sheltered preserve for his own prejudices -- which, it must be admitted, were many and far from pretty. But closer to the heart of this critique lies Goldthwaite's assertion that "whenever a professed Christian feels he must create some wholly other world to explore the meaning of his religion, he is flirting with bad faith. When he fills that world with the make-believes of other religions, he is playing at polytheism. When he further sets sorceresses to rule over it, and werewolves, incubuses and wraiths, he is dabbling in Manichaean dualism, the idea that standing opposed to God's good creation is another, separate and equal, or nearly equal, creation given over to evil."
This argument is theological. If Christians choose to believe that evil is an independent entity (like Satan or the White Witch of Narnia), instead of understanding, as Goldthwaite puts it, that "the darkness that is in this world we are quite adept at casting ourselves, by eclipsing God's will with our own," they are lapsing into heresy. The true belief of Christianity is that God created everything and that because God is good, all creation is good. Evil arises when human beings exercise their free will by turning away from God and putting their own pride first. For purely evil creatures to exist, God would have had to create them, and God does not create evil.
As Goldthwaite sees it, whatever Lewis and his close friend J.R.R. Tolkien may have claimed about their work, it is not compatible with true Christian theology. These two men disliked and withdrew from God's creation -- the world as it is -- considering it corrupt, fallen away from an earlier period of grace that, strangely, they associated with various pagan religions. Both Lewis and Tolkien had theories about how pre-Christian myth prefigured the gospels, but Goldthwaite dismisses this as sophistry. Tolkien had an elaborate justification for the Christian value in creating "secondary worlds," but Goldthwaite finds it lacking in any "explanation for why renouncing the world for places lost in the abyss of time should be thought anything but a rejection of God's plan for the world ... Creating a Secondary World, after all, is in effect a declaration that God's creation is deficient." It would be easier to shrug off this claim as excessive if there weren't so much evidence that Lewis and Tolkien considered this world to be just that: deficient -- compared to the fantasy worlds of their own invention."
If that's the case, then what lewis is doing is harmful to a fuller understanding of Christianity.
Don't know myself, as I never finished any of the books. Didn't grab me for whatever reason, and I know that makes me weird :)
Posted by: kevin | December 09, 2005 at 11:48
Ms. Miller's memory of when she "found out" about the allegory is pretty hazy - she gets dropped on the witness stand. If you're gonna write about it, get 'er done, don't play "maybe someone told me or maybe i read it when I was 13..."
I believe that God has given people gifts ... Tolkein and Lewis had the gifts of an expansive mind ... the gift to create pictures with words. Their worldview is held forth, not necessarily a "retelling" of the gospel. I see it more of the "Creation - Fall - Redemption" idea that Scaeffer, Colson, et al. have put forward. IF there was a land of Narnia (where animals could talk, etc), AND if evil took hold, AND if a child sold his soul for "turkish Delight," AND if a innocent laid down their life in place of the condemned...Ok you get the picture.
When I read the article at salon (after waiting for the obligatory Sony ad to end :)), I couldn't help but think that John Gold-guy needs a platform for something...
His use of all kinds of convoluted language (again, excuse my simple education) sound like these philosophy and sociology profs I had back in college who made my head spin. Perhaps I am too simple to challenge LWW from a Christian perspective...
Oh well. Please remember to post reviews if/when anyone sees the movie.
Later.
Posted by: BWB | December 09, 2005 at 15:23
Kevin,
Not sure where you're getting your theology from, but it doesn't reflect anything near a balanced view of Christian orthodoxy. I'd encourage you, for example, to do a word study of the world "world" in the New Testament.
For example, Galations 3:22: "But the Scripture declares that the whole world is a prisoner of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe."
And Ephesians 6:12: "For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the powers of this dark world and against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realms."
And 1 John 2:16: "For everything in the world—the cravings of sinful man, the lust of his eyes and the boasting of what he has and does—comes not from the Father but from the world."
And 1 John 5:19: "We know that we are children of God, and that the whole world is under the control of the evil one."
And on and on and on. In fact, it's fair to say that the Christian's struggle with the present broken "world" is one of the central themes of the New Testament literature.
You could also read Augustine's City of God and many other great works of Christian theology to see how Christians actually work out these themes.
In short, there is no doubt that Christian orthodoxy views this present world as broken, decayed, shot through with evil, and under the influence of personal evil forces including the "devil," even though it was originally created good.
I really don't understand these reactions to Lewis' fiction, and to a lesser extent to Tolkein's. If you understand Christian theology, and you understand something of the background of how Narnia and Rings were written, and you actually read the books, you can't posibly miss the Christian themes they contain. This is particularly true of the Narnia books -- I've read the whole series about three or four times, and the depth and breadth of its incarnation of Christian truth never ceases to amaze me.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 09, 2005 at 15:29
David
It's not my theology -- it is the theology of the person quoted in the Salon review.
And the complaignt doesn't appear to be about dealign with a broken world but rather the implication that the White Witch, and thus Satan, is an equal to God, seperate form His plans and guidance.
" and you understand something of the background of how Narnia and Rings were written,"
Most peolpe wont have that background, though -- and almost no 9 year olds will. Therefor, it is easy for kids to miss the symbolism. There is a lot more going on in Lewis' books than just the allegory. Which, at the end of the day, is probably a source of strength for them.
Posted by: kevin | December 09, 2005 at 15:34
David:
Did you read the Salon article? The objection seems clear, and if not mainstream, at least reasonable and sensible. There does seem to be a certain amount of hubris in trying to do a better job of telling God's story than God did. On the other hand, however, Jesus clearly used parables to teach certain lessons, so I don't see what's inherently wrong with modeling things after that.
All that said, I still think you miss the objection cited by Kevin in that article. The objection is not to the idea that there is evil in the world, or that the world is broken, but to the idea that a purely evil being can exist. And that objection is fairly straightforward, given that the existence of such a being would imply that God either intentionally created pure evil, or that pure evil was the result of some "mistake" that God made. Neither of these things is consistent with mainstream Christian thought.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 09, 2005 at 15:37
Here's an interesting take from a Guardian article on the movie, that resonated with me and is apropos of recent Tom/Jeff/David discussions:Children are supposed to fall in love with the hypnotic Aslan, though he is not a character: he is pure, raw, awesome power. He is an emblem for everything an atheist objects to in religion. His divine presence is a way to avoid humans taking responsibility for everything here and now on earth, where no one is watching, no one is guiding, no one is judging and there is no other place yet to come. Without an Aslan, there is no one here but ourselves to suffer for our sins, no one to redeem us but ourselves: we are obliged to settle our own disputes and do what we can. We need no holy guide books, only a very human moral compass. Everyone needs ghosts, spirits, marvels and poetic imaginings, but we can do well without an Aslan.This does a good job pointing out a key disconnect between Christians and atheists.
It seems to boil down to one's perspective on the question "What does it mean if nobody is watching?" To the Christian, it seems to mean that people can do whatever they want without fear of retribution. To the atheist, it seems to mean that we'd better take care of problems ourselves, because nobody else is going to do it for us. To me, at least, there seems to be some truth to both ways of looking at it.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 09, 2005 at 16:18
All that said, I still think you miss the objection cited by Kevin in that article.
Ok, I went back and read the Salon article. She makes three objections:
Objection 1 is the one I already dealt with: "These two men disliked and withdrew from God's creation -- the world as it is -- considering it corrupt, fallen away from an earlier period of grace..." This objection shows the writer doesn't really understand Christian theology, nor does she understand either Lewis or Tolkein. For from withdrawing from God's creation, Lewis revelled in it. Read, for example, Lewis' discussion of "the pleasures" in The Screwtape Letters -- he viewed every pleasure as a gift from God to be enjoyed in its proper context. Of course, both Lewis and Tolkein were men of their social class and time -- somewhat eccentric Oxford Dons.
Objection 2 is the one you, Tom, dealt with: she doesn't think it's appropriate to re-cast or re-tell the original story. Seems silly to me, particularly since she apparently finds the original story objectionable anyway.
Objection 3 is the one you mention about dualism. That's a fair point. The "Good vs. Evil" theme in much fantasy literature can be dualistic, and you're right, a Biblical worldview is not dualistic. Interestingly, I read a Christianity Today movie review just a few moments ago that suggests the film watered down Aslan's kingly presence and gave the White Witch too much power. In the book, it's crystal clear that the Witch never has any power over Aslan except that which Aslan willingly gives her -- Aslan goes to the stone table knowing the "deeper magic" that will redeem Narnia -- just like the Christian understanding of how Jesus willingly went to the cross to gain a greater victory. Haven't seen the movie yet, so I'll have to try to reserve judgment.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 09, 2005 at 16:28
Tom, have you read the Narnia books? I don't know where this Guardian guy is getting his info about how Aslan is characterized, but it seems way off to me. Aslan isn't some mystical power, and there are many poignant moments in the stories when he allows people to choose their own paths. It's a great picture of Christ -- not perfect, as it is just a story after all -- but really great.
"What does it mean if nobody is watching?"
This is an interesting way to phrase it. I'm not sure it's so limited though. I'd ask something like "Is there any such thing as 'goodness,' 'freedom,' or 'justice'"? A true materialist must hold that there is not -- ultimately there is nothing but "selfish genes," as Dawkins puts it. The question isn't so much whether there is something to compel us to be good when no one's watching, but whether we should even care about being good, or whether being "good" means anything at all. Was Mao right -- does morality really begin at the end of a gun? That for me anyway is the big question.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 09, 2005 at 16:41
David:"Is there any such thing as 'goodness,' 'freedom,' or 'justice'"? A true materialist must hold that there is notI'm not sure I agree with you about this. Certainly a materialist has a very different idea of what the source of these things is, but I haven't seen anyone seriously claim that there's "no such thing," at least not in the way you seem to be claiming. Certainly not any more than they'd deny, for example, that certain social orders exist.
There are many differences other than the one I cited, of course. Another question (which I'm sure you've heard before) is "Did God create man in His own image, or was it the other way around?" You view the imperfect justice of the world as evidence of man's fallen nature; I view it as evidence that justice is a creation of imperfect man. That sort of thing.
But now we're WAY the heck off topic. :) Sorry about that!
Posted by: tgirsch | December 10, 2005 at 11:40
Certainly a materialist has a very different idea of what the source of these things is, but I haven't seen anyone seriously claim that there's "no such thing," at least not in the way you seem to be claiming.
In fact, many materialists do claim there's no such thing in any objective sense. Itellectually honest materialists admit that, in their view, morality is merely a social construct born of evolutionary psychology and biology; many also are wiling to go the extra mile and acknowledge that their views eliminate any concept of free will. So, for you, what's the source? Was Mao wrong? (Yeah we're OT, but ain't that always how it goes -- we'd be bores if we never got outside the box) (Oh, and C.S. Lewis also wrote quite a bit about the basis for morality -- see in particular The Abolition of Man, another must-read.)
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 10, 2005 at 13:22
Interesting discussion.
Those who think that Narnia presents a false theology are way over analyzing things. The Lion, The Witch and The Wardrobe is not the gospel of John, after all.
This is lengthy, but important.
In Selected Literary Essays, Bluspels and Flalanspheres: A Semantic Nightmare, C.S. Lewis writes this about our imagination:
It must not be supposed that I am in any sense putting forward the imagination as the organ of truth. We are not talking of truth, but of meaning: meaning which is the antecedent condition both of truth and falsehood, whose antithesis is not error but nonsense. I am a rationalist. For me, reason is the natural organ of truth; but imagination is the organ of meaning. Imagination, producing new metaphors or revivifying old, is not the cause of truth, but its condition. It is, I confess, undeniable that such a view indirectly implies a kind of truth or rightness in the imagination itself. (Qtd. in “Lewis, Tolkien, and Myth, Part I.”)
Re-read that quote a couple of times and think about it. It is really, really important.
Imagination gives truth a context in which to work. Stories are important. Narrative is critical. Truth gains traction and meaning by means of the imagination.
This is Lewis' gift to the world. His imagination which is grounded in a worldview based on absolute truth. To read the LWW as the gospel of John is to totally miss the boat. For this reason, I think that Goldthwaite's comments about the LWW slices badly off into the weeds.
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 10, 2005 at 13:36
Yeah Jeff,
I think that's what I was trying to express in my somewhat gnarly post! Thanks for the great summation.
Off to read your review!
Later.
Posted by: BWB | December 10, 2005 at 18:32
David:In fact, many materialists do claim there's no such thing in any objective sense.Well, they're generally operating from a different sense of "objective" than you are. A friend of mine is a graduate ethicist and an atheist, and we've had some long discussions about this. The bottom line is that virtually no one who has seriously studied this suggests that morality is arbitrary (which is generally what Christians view as the only alternative to God-given morality). What it comes down to is whether the morality of an action is determined by its adherence to hard-and-fast rules (deontological ethics) or by its consequences (consequentialist/utilitarian ethics). He writes at great lenght about it here, if you're interested.many [materialists] also are wiling to go the extra mile and acknowledge that their views eliminate any concept of free will.Sigh. We've been through this a number of times, but it bears repeating: So does Christian theology. "Free will" in the sense we generally understand it is logically impossible in a universe with an omnipotent, omniscient God. To get around this, one has to toy with the definition of free will to make it fit, or ignore time (neat trick), or toy with the meaning of "omniscient."
This isn't to say that materialism doesn't have serious problems with free will -- it does. But Christianity is no better off in that regard.So, for you, what's the source?My thinking on the source of morality is largely in line with what KTK writes. But it's not a trivial question. First I'd have to define what morality actually is, and that's not something I've been able to do succinctly.
But as I've argued before (principally before Jeff's friend's apologetics class), Christians have similar problems. Even if God is the source of morality, he did a lousy job of making clear what the rules are. That, or He created a race that has a vastly different sense of right and wrong than His (perhaps He never explicitly forbid, and at times directly commanded and condoned, slavery and genocide because in His mind those things aren't immoral, but most of us have a gut reaction against those things).
Posted by: tgirsch | December 12, 2005 at 17:44
We need to have a full orbed "virtual Pigfest" on the moral argument.
I personally think the "Tertium quid" argument, which Lewis and other natural law (N.L.) thinkers use brilliantly, is irrefutable.
I think KTK is a smart guy, but his reponse fails to answer the challenge that Lewis and other N.L. thinkers have thrown down.
Perhaps David O. could host the discussion over on his quiet and well behaved blog. I can tell already that David is a brilliant natural law thinker ... and, he is a law professor. He is used to arguing and getting paid to argue :-)
I therefore make a motion that David O. host the discussion and I will be a co-arguer for natural law. Not that I have any influence at all, but maybe we could recruit Joe Carter to join the natural law team as well.
Stupid idea? Brilliant idea?
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 13, 2005 at 10:17
by its adherence to hard-and-fast rules (deontological ethics) or by its consequences (consequentialist/utilitarian ethics).
Excellent. Are you really a strict utilitarian?
"Free will" in the sense we generally understand it
Agreed that it raises questions for both Christian and materialist worldviews. But how would you say we "generally understand" free will?
But Christianity is no better off in that regard.
I'd disagree strongly here. But I can't make the point in 50 words or less today -- that pesky "work" thing keeps getting in the way.
perhaps He never explicitly forbid, and at times directly commanded and condoned, slavery and genocide because in His mind those things aren't immoral, but most of us have a gut reaction against those things
This is an interesting argument atheists / consequentialists always like to raise. The fact that most people in most places and cultures have that kind of "gut reaction" to some degree or another suggests to me a serious weakness in consequentialism. Yes, I know that evolutionary theory tries to account for group behavior and altruism, but even if we grant evolutionary theory's explanatory power with respect to biological morphology, it's pretty weak as applied to ethics, IMHO.
I'd say this -- at least Christianity has an ontological basis for rejecting slavery and genocide. Consequentialism, it seems to me, has no real basis for doing so. If the majority of people are able to maximize their utility as a result of slavery and genocide, a principled consequentialist should not oppose slavery and genocide in those circumstances. The evidence of our "gut reaction" against such thinking -- what I'd call the evidence of the "natural law" -- seems compelling.
As to God condoning slavery and genocide, again, I wish I had more time to write today. Indeed there are a number of difficult passages in the Bible about these things. The slavery issue doesn't concern me so much -- the passages in the Old Testament law dealing with slavery, as well as the New Testament book of Philemon, generally are very forward-looking for the cultures and times in which they were written. Most Christians acknowledge that there is a certain ethical progression reflected in scripture and in the life of the Church over time regarding the civil law with respect to cultural institutions like slavery.
As to genocide, for me, those passages are much more difficult. Here, though, I think much of the criticism results from a failure to place those passages into historical context, a failure to take the decision-maker's perspective, and a failure to appreciate the dire consequences of sin.
As to the historical context, Israel's conquest of Canaan was a unique historical circumstance that is not repeatable. Nowhere does the Bible suggest that genocide or holy war is generally justifiable today.
As to the perspective of the decision-maker, only God is entitled to make the sort of decision He made concerning Israel's conquest of Canaan. God, being perfectly knowing, wise, and just, knew fully how the Canaanites would have responded had Israel made peaceful overtures. Also, God, being sovereign over all of history, ultimately directs the course of all nations to establish His ultimately good purposes.
Finally as to the gravity of sin, God, being perfectly holy and perfectly deserving of our worship, is justified in judging individuals and nations, like Canaan, that reject Him. Sin is not trivial; it has real consequences. Canaan chose to reject God, and the consequences of that choice, in the manner God acted in history at that time, was judgment through war. God is indeed a God of mercy, and the time in which we now live, after the death and resurrection of Jesus but before his return, is a time of grace. But the Christian story is that the time of grace and another time of judgment will come. In this sense, the stories of Israel and Canaan serve as pictures of the telos of all of history. A full-bodied understanding of the judgment of Canaan, then, must involve more than taking that unique incident out of context and calling it "holy war" or "genocide."
Now, before you tell me this, I know that all of this assumes a certain view of God's nature, and that none of it will convince someone who assumes otherwise. You're absolutely right, Judeo-Christian ethics ultimately depend on a certain view of God. Why it's reasonable to believe in that God is a whole 'nother discussion.....
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 13, 2005 at 10:36
I therefore make a motion that David O. host the discussion and I will be a co-arguer for natural law.
Excellent! Give me a week or so though -- just rolling into final exams here at the college.
his quiet and well behaved blog.
LOL! Other ways to describe it -- "boring"; "seldom-visited"? Reminds me of a dinner we had at my law firm years ago for an attorney who was leaving the firm. The supervising partner rose to give the toast, and said "Joe was always an ... adequate lawyer."
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 13, 2005 at 10:40
David
"at least Christianity has an ontological basis for rejecting slavery and genocide."
I am not sure how you arrive at that. How can you say that Christians have justification derived from reason alone when Chrisitians have often used the Bible as justification for both? I mean, how can we say their is an ontological argument agaisnt something that a large number of Christians down the ages have claimed was supported by God's Word? I am missing a step in your logic.
" Consequentialism, it seems to me, has no real basis for doing so. If the majority of people are able to maximize their utility as a result of slavery and genocide, a principled consequentialist should not oppose slavery and genocide in those circumstances. "
Based on hsitory, some of that obviously took place. But I think you do not take the consequentialist arguments/rasoning far enuogh in this situation. It is easy to see that if slavery exists, if genocide is allowed to take place, then any individual is subject to both, and a consequentialist can rightly argue that the fear of such outcomes, or the instabality of such outcomes, is more than enough to change the utility equations.
" But how would you say we "generally understand" free will?"
No none-physically imposed restrictions on my choices.
Posted by: kevin | December 13, 2005 at 13:47
David:Are you really a strict utilitarian?At the risk of sounding like I'm copping out, I'm honestly not sure. I haven't studied the matter enough to give an authoritative answer. I'd lean toward "no," if only because I don't know how the utilitarian theory deals with the situation where an act results in unforseen and unforseeable negative consequences.But how would you say we "generally understand" free will?To try to put it succinctly (and thus imperfectly), any situation where I am equally free and able to make two or more choices, and where the outcome is not known. In any situation where the outcome is certain, there is no true free will.The fact that most people in most places and cultures have that kind of "gut reaction" to some degree or another suggests to me a serious weakness in consequentialism.How so? If anything, I'd argue that the evidence of what people actually have done throughout history is far more consistent with an imperfect, imprecise moral and ethical standard, rather than an absolute handed-down-by-unquestionable-authority-figure one.I'd say this -- at least Christianity has an ontological basis for rejecting slavery and genocide.Except that it never explicitly does so. Sure, if God had forbidden them, then you'd have something to hang your hat on. But He didn't, and in fact He has condoned both behaviors.The evidence of our "gut reaction" against such thinking -- what I'd call the evidence of the "natural law" -- seems compelling.Except that not everyone shares that gut reaction. Just most of us. And, by the way, whether or not people have that gut reaction seems to be wholly independent of their beliefs.Indeed there are a number of difficult passages in the Bible about these things.Actually, they're pretty simple. They're only difficult from the perspective of someone who's trying to explain away an uncomfortable piece of scripture.The slavery issue doesn't concern me so much -- the passages in the Old Testament law dealing with slavery, as well as the New Testament book of Philemon, generally are very forward-looking for the cultures and times in which they were written.They were forward-looking for the time but not okay now? That sounds awfully -- what's the word? -- relativistic to me. If slavery is evil and wrong, then God could have decreed it to be so at any time. He did not. Not then, not through Jesus, and not since. So where does that leave the institution of slavery?As to genocide, for me, those passages are much more difficult. Here, though, I think much of the criticism results from a failure to place those passages into historical context, a failure to take the decision-maker's perspective, and a failure to appreciate the dire consequences of sin.Sorry, but again, the whole "historical context" line of reasoning seems to smack of moral relativism. OK and condoned in some circumstances but not in others? I'm not aware of anything in scripture that condemns genocide, and I'm aware of several verses that condone it. If scripture is the final word on the morality of these issues, then we must conclude that genocide is at least sometimes a moral and righteous act. Not to do so imposes an extrabiblical standard of morality, and that's what you're supposed to be arguing against here.Nowhere does the Bible suggest that genocide or holy war is generally justifiable today.Nowhere does it suggest that it is not, much less state this explicitly.Now, before you tell me this, I know that all of this assumes a certain view of God's nature, and that none of it will convince someone who assumes otherwise.Believe it or not, I wasn't going to go there. My point had little to do with whether one belives in God in this context. My point is that if things like genocide and slavery are sometimes condoned and never condemned by scripture, then any standard that deems these things to be immoral is apart from scripture, and thus can not be viewed to be the authoritative word of a Holy lawgiver. And this ties back to my previous statement: either God doesn't have a problem with these things, or He did a lousy job of telling us that He didn't like them.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 13, 2005 at 14:49
Tom,
It's interesting to me that you seem to want to insist on a hyper-literalist reading of the Bible that even "Biblical literalists" don't insist on. You're effectively setting up a straw man by misinterpreting (badly) scripture to mean stuff any reasonably competent exegesis establishes it doesn't mean. To say that God progressively revealed how slavery should be treated in civil law, for example, is obviously different than endorsing relativism. You have to understand how, when, and why God gave civil legal rules to the nation of Israel first, which takes a little work. If you want to present a charicature of the text rather than doing the hard work of understanding it, I can't say much more about it.
My point is that if things like genocide and slavery are sometimes condoned and never condemned by scripture,
I don't agree with your premise.
How about this summary of Biblical ethics from Jesus: One of the teachers of the law came and heard them debating. Noticing that Jesus had given them a good answer, he asked him, "Of all the commandments, which is the most important?"
The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one.Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.'The second is this: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.'There is no commandment greater than these."
Or this summary from Paul: The commandments, "Do not commit adultery," "Do not murder," "Do not steal," "Do not covet,"and whatever other commandment there may be, are summed up in this one rule: "Love your neighbor as yourself."
Would you say this ethic leaves any room for slavery or genocide? You have to read the whole of scripture together, not cherry pick one narrative you think proves a point.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 13, 2005 at 17:46
David:You're effectively setting up a straw man by misinterpreting (badly) scripture to mean stuff any reasonably competent exegesis establishes it doesn't mean.Huh? I'm doing no such thing. I'm saying that scripture never explicitly condemns slavery or genocide, and that on several occasions it implicity or explicitly condones both. You've done nothing to refute this. At the risk of sounding a bit condescending, you've only made excuses for this (I'd call it glaring) omission in the scriptural code of ethics.You have to read the whole of scripture together, not cherry pick one narrative you think proves a point.That's rich coming from a guy who just cherry-picked a couple of verses that, if you squint at them just right, might sort of imply that slavery might not be okay. Of course, in so doing, you ignored or marginalized Ephesians 6, in which Paul takes no issue with slavery at all, and indeed encourages slaves to obey; to read that, it seems that slavery isn't wrong, just poor treatment of slaves. Romans 13 doesn't directly address slavery. Ephesians 6 (which comes later, by the way), does.
Of course, I'm sure Paul didn't really mean slaves when he said that...
The point is that on the whole the Bible speaks about slavery a lot and never once (to my knowledge) explicitly condemns it. Again, you've done nothing to refute that claim.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 13, 2005 at 18:04
I am concerned that this good discussion is buried beneath a post about C.S. Lewis and Narnia.
Tom, you basically ignored my idea to have David O. host a discussion on natural law on his blog.
I assume you just read past it. What I suggested was having David host a discussion on natural law on his quiet and well mannered blog. His audience is extremely well behaved over there, unlike the tomato throwers you and I seem to attract with our blogs ... okay, more so with your blog :-)
Seriously, I would like to hear how you engage natural law theory ... I am already familiar with the tactic you are taking with David here ... you bring up slavery and insist that the Bible teaches (implicitly) us that is morally acceptable for all of us to go out and get slaves ... yada yada. Then when someone applies basic Biblical hermenuetics to refute your claim, you throw a penalty flag or cry that someone moved the goalposts. That is old. Let's cover some new ground.
I want you to explain why you think C.S. Lewis and other natural law thinkers were wrong for believing in a natural moral law ... which of course, will cause you to fall on your own sword as you do so. :-)
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 13, 2005 at 18:23
" I am already familiar with the tactic you are taking with David here ... you bring up slavery and insist that the Bible teaches (implicitly) us that is morally acceptable for all of us to go out and get slaves ... yada yada. Then when someone applies basic Biblical hermenuetics to refute your claim, you throw a penalty flag or cry that someone moved the goalposts. "
It may be old, but it is old becasue we have never gotten a satisfactory answer. As I said to david, how can you argue that there is an ontological argument agaisnt slavery when the bible's text supports owning slaves? How can you reason away those verses if you maintain that the Bible is the literal word of God? I haven't seen a good answer to that question from either of you.
Posted by: kevin | December 14, 2005 at 11:20
Jeff:
I'll be happy to move the discussion over to David's as soon as he opens it up and lets us know about it. Meanwhile, I'm not complaining that people are applying "basic Biblical hermenuetics" to the problem, I'm complaining that they're ignoring the plain text of the Bible, or at best selectively reading it. I'm not the one doing the cherry-picking, to use David's phrase. The holistic picture of slavery according to scripture (setting aside genocide for the moment) is almost crystal clear.
And it would be easy as pie to defeat me on this point, too. Simply point me to the scripture that explicitly identifies slavery as being morally wrong, and you're off to a terrific start. Show how that supersedes all the pro-slavery and slavery-neutral verses, and you'll have me.
As it is, you and David haven't done anything to convince me (or, I'd argue, any reasonable, neutral observer) that the standard you're using to decide slavery is wrong comes from somewhere other than the scripture, and then trying to find scriptural verses that might fit that predetermined notion that slavery is wrong.
You have to understand what's at issue here: the source of morality. According to your worldview, slavery isn't morally wrong -- cannot be considered morally wrong -- unless God says so. And as far as I can see, God has never said so. Thus, slavery is not morally wrong.
Sure, you can point to verses that seem to imply that maybe it might not be okay, but I can point to far more that seem to contradict that notion. Further, I can point to people who interpret those same verses much differently. Which goes back to my original point: in a worldview with God-as-the-source-of-morality, either slavery is okay, or God did a lousy job telling us it isn't.I want you to explain why you think C.S. Lewis and other natural law thinkers were wrong for believing in a natural moral lawIn other words, you want to shift from the defensive to the offensive. :) Actually, what you're attempting to do is set up a fool's errand for me. Even assuming I knew very much at all about Lewis' thinking on the matter (I don't), any inconsistencies I may find with Lewis' (and, by extension, your) theory of moral law will simply be attributed to the fallen nature of man rather than a bona fide problem with the theory.
If you really want to head down that road, however, perhaps you should do a post summarizing the "Tertium quid" argument, and explain why you think it's irrefutable, and open that up to discussion. Then I can invite KTK to answer your challenge more directly, since he's the guy who's studied morality and ethics, and the guy whose view of morality you challenged above.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 14, 2005 at 11:29
Ugh: that the standard you're using to decide slavery is wrong comes from somewhere other than the scriptureThat's pretty badly worded, and is almost exactly backward. What I was trying to say was that the standard you're using to decide slavery is wrong comes from somewhere other than scripture, and that none of your arguments have done anything to convince anyone otherwise. And as Kevin points out, this is contrary to the idea of an ontological anti-slavery standard.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 14, 2005 at 11:33
What I was trying to say was that the standard you're using to decide slavery is wrong comes from somewhere other than scripture, and that none of your arguments have done anything to convince anyone otherwise.
Jesus said to love your neighbor as yourself. If you love your neighbor as yourself, you won't enslave him, or murder him. The 19th Century Abolitionists got this. Abraham Lincoln got it. Martin Luther King, Jr. got it. Heck, even Jimmy Carter, Bill Clinton and Jesse Jackson get it. Why you don't get it, I don't know.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 14, 2005 at 23:04
And why you continue to ignore all the Bible verses that directly address slavery without ever condemning it, I don't know. Heck, I'd even cut you some slack if the pro-slavery stuff were exclusively Old Testament, but it's not. Paul -- who last I checked, speaks for Jesus -- condoned slavery, too, a fact you conveniently ignore. (Perhaps Paul had a different idea of who does and does not constitute your "neighbor.")
Then there's your selective history lesson, in which you brazenly ignore the fact that the Bible was prominently used to defend slavery and to oppose the civil rights movement. I happen to agree with Dr. King and President Clinton (and you) in that interpretation, but the fact that devout people read the same "inerrant" text and come to markedly different conclusions concerning what it means is evidence for my point of view, not yours.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 15, 2005 at 01:05
Tom,
Is slavery wrong?
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 15, 2005 at 07:11
but the fact that devout people read the same "inerrant" text and come to markedly different conclusions concerning what it means is evidence for my point of view, not yours.
Screechh.... Goalposts moving... Are we discussing "inerrancy" now or Biblical ethics generally? Name any text, theory, point of view, whatever, and you'll find umpteen different interpretations of it. That isn't necessarily a problem with the text. Often it's a problem with the reader. (Unless you agree with postmodern textual criticism?) Anyway, "inerrancy," at least properly understood, isn't a hermeneutical sledge hammer; it recognizes the need for tools of interpretation and the fact that even the inerrant text can sometimes seem unclear to us. No serious Bible student, even inerrantist ones, says everything about the Bible is as simple as reading the menu at McDonald's.
As for Paul and slavery, go back and read Ephesians and Philemon really carefully, understand the cultural context, and you'll see that Paul doesn't "condone" slavery. Paul also never says "don't kick your grandmother in the shins," but that doesn't mean he condones grandmother-kicking. Not expressly condemning isn't the same thing as "condoning." And in Philemon, he is pretty clearly urging Philemon to set Onesimus free.
And though some people have interpreted the Bible to permit slavery -- and indeed some others have gone further to claim that the descendants of Ham mentioned in Genesis are the African races and are under a curse, so that the Bible compels slavery -- the overwhelming concensus in Biblical ethics, across the spectrum from "inerrantists" to "liberals," is that a correct understanding of Biblical teaching and ethics condemns these views.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 15, 2005 at 10:25
Tom and Kevin -- ok, I've had my coffee and medication, so now I'd like to put the snark-o-phone away for a minute. It seems to me that we're working off of different understandings of what constitutes Christian ethics. You seem to think that Christian ethics is essentially a set of rules that are expressly spelled out in the Bible. If something isn't expressly prohibited in the Bible, then, Christian ethics would permit it, or at most be ambivalent about it. It's fair to say that many Christians think and live this way.
But, this is not a view anyone who has seriously thought about it holds, or has ever held, concerning Christian ethics. This is why I say "the Bible never expressly condemns slavery!" seems like a straw man to me. The Bible isn't primarily a detailed rule book concerning ethics. There are some specific rules, but mostly there are general principles, such as "love your neighbor as yourself." The Church is to draw out the implications of those principles and apply them within a given cultural and historical context. (I take a Reformed rather than Catholic view of what constitutes the "Church," but that's a separate issue). This isn't relativism or "situational ethics," because the principles never change -- "love your neighbor as yourself" is true for everyone, everywhere, always. How exactly that love gets worked out in a given context, however, may differ with the context.
I wish, for example, that I could physically remove all the crack dealers from the town of Paterson, NJ, near where I live. I wish I could give every honest poor person in Paterson a good job and a place to live. But I don't have the resources, ability, or authority to do that. I can, however, work with local ministries and shelters that provide drug counseling and food banks. (I have to admit I'm "getting convicted," as my old-school fundamentalists friends would say, by my relative lack of effort even in these small things!) My failure to do the best possible thing that conceivably could be done doesn't mean I condone drug dealing and poverty. It means I have to apply the "love your neighbor" ethic within the limits of the context in which I find myself.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 15, 2005 at 10:25
And -- as to the "Natural Law and Consequentialism" Symposium at my site -- absolutely, let's do this. I love nattering about this stuff. Just give me a week or so to get through final exam season. This is the only time of the year it's bad to be a teacher. Then I'll get it all set up. And let me know if you have any ideas for it. I think it would be cool if we could have a post from the Natural Law perspective, a guest post from the consequentialist perspective, and then responses.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 15, 2005 at 10:32
David
No, what Tom and I are doing is pointing out that your contention that the truth that comes form the Bible is not innerrant or absolute as you and jeff have claimed. The only way you can get to the notion that slavery is condemened is to look at the scope of human hisotry and notice that slavery creates practices and situations that are completely opposite of the teaching of Christ.
But that is your personal interpretation. You got it from your opinion of what history has taught you. It does not come form God, it comes from you, and it is no more evidence of natural law or the notion of a an absolute morality. You try to say that becasue the principle doesn't change, that it is not relative. I am sorry, but we used to burn witches becasue we loved them as we loved ourselves and wanted to save their souls.
People read the text and come to different conclusions.
BTW -- you a high school or college teacher? or have you done both?
Posted by: kevin | December 15, 2005 at 14:48
David:Are we discussing "inerrancy" now or Biblical ethics generally?While I don't agree that this constituted goalpost moving, if it makes you feel better, simply delete the word "inerrant" from the sentence completely. My point still stands.Paul also never says "don't kick your grandmother in the shins," but that doesn't mean he condones grandmother-kicking.Maybe so, but Paul doesn't talk about the relationship your foot should have with your grandmother, either. He does, however, specifically address the relationship slaves and their masters should have, and (silly him) forgets to mention the whole "don't have slaves" thing.
And come on, Philemon? You have to squint pretty hard to read that as anything other than a plea for that particular slave. I don't see anything in the text that is even remotely critical of the institution of slavery.This isn't relativism or "situational ethics," because the principles never change -- "love your neighbor as yourself" is true for everyone, everywhere, always.This betrays a fundamental misunderstanding of situation-ethics (and, for that matter, deontological ethics). There, too, there are underlying general prinicples which are always true for everyone, everywhere. Situation-ethics merely acknowledges that hard-and-fast rules don't always serve to advance those underlying principles. And that's remarkably similar to what you seem to be advocating. So perhaps we're not that far apart after all.
Situation-ethics posit that the "rules" may vary from one situation to the next, even if the underlying principles must be adhered to. Deontological ethics says that the rules must be followed, period. Someone who argues that the Ten Commandments must be universally obeyed is arguing for deontological ethics. Stealing is always wrong, for everyone, under all circumstances, even if you're (for example) stealing medication your son needs to stay alive because you can't afford to buy it, and even if you pay for that medication after-the-fact. You stole it, and that's immoral, because you broke the rules.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 15, 2005 at 16:02
I'm a college teacher -- business law. See my website, www.davidopderbeck.com, for stuff about my teaching and scholarship.
I don't claim my view of scripture is inerrant. Nor do I claim that scripture can be interpeted apart from the historical life and experience of the Church. That's not what inerrancy claims. Inerrancy actually is a highly nuanced position, although it's often popularly used like a sledgehammer. Evangelicals who are inerrantists generally agree that history and tradition, though not authoritative, are necessary and helpful aids in understanding what the text is teaching.
BTW, the key to inerpreting Ephesians 6, I think, is Ephesians 5:21: "Submit to one another out of reverence for Christ." Paul is telling husbands and wives, parents and children, slaves and masters to submit to each other in Christ. In Ephesians 6:9, he tells masters to treat slaves in the same way that slaves are to treat their masters: "with respect and fear, and with sincerity of heart, just as you would obey Christ" (verse 5), because the master should know that Christ is the common master over both the master and slave (verse 9). True, he doesn't say "masters free your slaves now." But what he does say, in its cultural context, was revolutionary. A master submitting to a slave? Unheard of. (It was revolutionary in terms of relationships between men and women as well). In Philemon he goes a little further and all but openly suggests that Onesimus should be freed.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 15, 2005 at 16:04
This still underscores what I've been arguing all along: the rules require a great deal of interpretation, and with that requirement comes the possibility for differing interpretations. That is, the rules are open to interpretation, and some will interpret them very differently than others, often with equally good supporting arguments. If God wanted us to follow His will, He didn't make His will clear enough.
And I'll say that it seems more than a bit odd to me that the same (meta)book that describes in graphic detail what must be done in the event that a couple should have sex during menstruation doesn't bother to say that salvery is wrong. Talk about majoring in the minors and minoring in the majors! Just think how much human suffering could have been avoided if God had simply told Moses "Thou shalt not take slaves," instead of hiding it in a nuanced argument 2 millennia later...
Re: Philemon, again, arguing for the freedom of one man is not the same thing as arguing against the entire institution of bondage. It's possible for me to argue for the release of a single prisoner without arguing against the concept of incarceration. What Paul does in Philemon is the former, not the latter.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 15, 2005 at 16:34
And come on, Philemon? You have to squint pretty hard to read that as anything other than a plea for that particular slave
What's with the squinting thing? This is how interpreters throughout the ages have looked at the book of Philemon. I'm not saying anything novel about it. So here's where we are with hermeneutics: if we cut Philemon out of the Bible, ignore everything Jesus ever said, delete the "love your neighbor" and "do unto others" stuff, elide everything in Ephesians except for one verse in Chapter 6, pretend all that stuff in the Old Testament about "doing justice" and standing up for the "poor and oppressed" isn't in there, and forget about how the Jewish community has understood the OT law and how the Christian community has understood the new covenant, the Bible doesn't exactly condemn and therefore "condones" slavery. Talk about squinting!
If God wanted us to follow His will, He didn't make His will clear enough.
I think now, though, that you're taking the point too far. Yes, some things in scripture are reasonably differing interpretations, and no single interpretation is "inerrant." But that doesn't mean this is true of everything in scripture. Some things are clear enough that no reasonable interpreter, applying principles that reasonable people use to understand the meaning of all sorts of documents, could materially differ. And the overall redemptive arc of scripture -- the kerygma as theologians call it -- also is reasonably clear or "perpiscuous."
I don't pretend to understand why God didn't just give us a bullet-point doctrine and practice manual instead of the collection of texts we have. I suspect it has something to do with the way the written text must interact with the living Church in any given historical and cultural moment. I might agree with you on one thing -- many evangelicals take a view of scripture that is far too small and mechanistic, and that fails to account for the diverse nature of the texts we've received.
And I'll say that it seems more than a bit odd to me that the same (meta)book that describes in graphic detail what must be done in the event that a couple should have sex during menstruation doesn't bother to say that salvery is wrong.
This is another hermeneutical issue involving the role of the civil law given to Israel in relation to the moral law. Partly I think this is answered by Jesus, who made crystal clear that the greatest commandment is love. There's a major problem in understanding the text if you think the Bible "majors" on this small aspect of the Israelite civil law in light of the forceful and voluminous teachings of Jesus and Paul.
In fact, to apply a proper hermeneutic you also need to understand that Jesus is the logos incarnate. The written text is not the pinnacle of revelation, Jesus is. We aren't Biblians, we're Christians. The Bible is God's written word to us, but Jesus is the living word. Reading a passage from the OT civil law without understanding it through the lense of Jesus the incarnate word makes no sense to us.
Just think how much human suffering could have been avoided if God had simply told Moses "Thou shalt not take slaves," instead of hiding it in a nuanced argument 2 millennia later...
I don't agree that it's that nuanced or hidden given all that I've said about hermeneutics and revelation, but regardless, this leads to an endless regress. Imagine how much human suffering could have been avoided if God told Paul to write: "Chamberlain -- oppose Hitler from the start!" or lots of other such things. God could've written a book that scripted out the right choice in every decision in history, but He doesn't work that way. I don't fully know why God chose to reveal what He did when He did. This in part is the theodicy issue we've discussed before.
Re: Philemon, again, ...
But the book of Philemon is part of the canon, meaning the Christian Church believes it has normative significance for the entire Church throughout history. With that assumption, you can't limit it only to the one situation it directly addresses. You could argue that Philemon shouldn't be part of the canon, but that's an entirely different argument. If you want to talk about "the Bible" and slavery, you have to include everything the Church defines as canonical, and not interpret some portions to make the canonization decision meaningless.
Posted by: dopderbeck | December 15, 2005 at 18:45
"So here's where we are with hermeneutics: if we cut Philemon out of the Bible, ignore everything Jesus ever said, delete the "love your neighbor" and "do unto others" stuff, elide everything in Ephesians except for one verse in Chapter 6, pretend all that stuff in the Old Testament about "doing justice" and standing up for the "poor and oppressed" isn't in there, and forget about how the Jewish community has understood the OT law and how the Christian community has understood the new covenant, the Bible doesn't exactly condemn and therefore "condones" slavery. Talk about squinting!"
ROFL.
"I suspect it has something to do with the way the written text must interact with the living Church in any given historical and cultural moment."
It is hard to imagine how the Bible could have been written better to speak to such a broad audience over such a broad period of time.
"I might agree with you on one thing -- many evangelicals take a view of scripture that is far too small and mechanistic, and that fails to account for the diverse nature of the texts we've received."
Many evangelicals barely read Scripture, sadly. Many have not had a basic course in hermenuetics either. Biblical illiteracy is a big problem, and contributes to the problems you are talking about.
"Reading a passage from the OT civil law without understanding it through the lense of Jesus the incarnate word makes no sense to us."
This is spot on, and following this simple advice will protect one from all kinds of exegetical absurdities.
"Imagine how much human suffering could have been avoided if God told Paul to write: "Chamberlain -- oppose Hitler from the start!" or lots of other such things."
Good example. Further, Tom's rhetorical question seems to miss the point that God's moral law is broken all the time ... even on the things that Tom agrees God did a good job on communicating ;-)
The question of suffering is about as old as it gets. The oldest book in the Bible wrestles with it, and we still wrestle with it.
"Re: Philemon"
One thing I think both of you have yet to touch upon in a serious manner, is the entire idea of cultural context. In other words, what did slavery look like in the first century under Roman rule? What did slavery look like in the Ancient Near East. My hunch is that Tom assumes that slavery means the kind of slavery that was practiced in this country in the pre-Civil War era ... which brings up images of cruelty and abuse.
I think that is a naive assumption. We know, for instance, that slaves could be treated as members of the household in the ancient near east. Joseph, in Egypt, was sold into slavery. As a slave, he was running the household and taking care of the business matters of an Egyptian aristocrat. He was in charge, for all intents and purposes.
Were slaves in the ancient Near East treated abusively? Most definitely. We have the example of what the Egyptians did to the Hebrews in Exodus.
My point is this. If this comment thread is going to continue to morph into a treatise on the subject of slavery, then I would like to see some historical research and context brought into the discussion.
Who knows, perhaps taking a slave, and therefore bringing him into your household and under your care and protection, was a morally virtuous action compared to allowing them to starve to death.
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 15, 2005 at 19:55
Insightful. What Salon's Miller also misses is that the beauty that grabbed her in Narnia is indicative of the heart of Christian belief...much more so than "dreary Sunday school."
A Lewis-lover myself, I just stumbled across your blog via Semicolon, and I'll be back!
Posted by: Ariel | December 19, 2005 at 18:23
David:if we cut Philemon out of the Bible, ignore everything Jesus ever said ... the Bible doesn't exactly condemn and therefore "condones" slavery. Talk about squinting!Funny, I'll admit, but you still miss the point. I'm not talking about ignoring that stuff. I'm talking about the stuff that the Bible actually SAYS about slavery (you know, the subject at hand), which it addresses directly on many occasions without ever saying a bad thing about it. This is a subject that you simply refuse to directly engage, and frankly I'm beginning to think it's deliberate. Because you know that where the Bible does directly address slavery, the picture it paints isn't pretty.
It would be different if I were harping on some subject that the Bible doesn't address at all (say, abortion, for example) and complaining that the Bible never explicitly condemns it. But slavery is not such a subject: it is repeatedly mentioned in scripture and never, ever condemned. A point that you simply refuse to concede, it seems.
As to not ignoring things Jesus said, I wish conservative Christians would remember more of what he said when the subject is war, or capital punishment, or public prayer...I might agree with you on one thing -- many evangelicals take a view of scripture that is far too small and mechanistic, and that fails to account for the diverse nature of the texts we've received.Finally, back to some common ground, at least. Although I think you too quickly dismiss the possibility that the diverse nature of the texts we've received involves a certain degree of corruption by man, and that the scriptures must be viewed through this prism. From what you've argued here, I suspect you reject the JEDP theory, but it's on pretty solid ground. Mind you, an imperfect scripture no more disproves God than the lack of an admonition against slavery makes slavery okay. But I think that the inerrant view of scripture causes more problems than it solves.Partly I think this is answered by Jesus, who made crystal clear that the greatest commandment is love. There's a major problem in understanding the text if you think the Bible "majors" on this small aspect of the Israelite civil law in light of the forceful and voluminous teachings of Jesus and Paul.On Jesus, I'll mostly agree here, but Paul is a bit more uneven. It's rather difficult to reconcile the anger of many of Paul's epistles with love.Reading a passage from the OT civil law without understanding it through the lense of Jesus the incarnate word makes no sense to us.So what about when Jesus tells us that the law doesn't get abolished until the heavens and earth disappear? Did they disappear while I was watching the football game, and I didn't notice? (Of course, I'm sure I'm taking that out of context, and that Jesus didn't actually mean what the plain text seems to say he means...)I don't agree that it's that nuanced or hidden given all that I've said about hermeneutics and revelationWell, perhaps not "hidden," but the point is, you essentially have to ignore everything the Bible actually says about slavery specifically (including one of the Ten Commandments!), and then infer your position on slavery from more general statements, in order to come up with "slavery is wrong."Imagine how much human suffering could have been avoided if God told Paul to write: "Chamberlain -- oppose Hitler from the start!" or lots of other such things.Again, a supremely unfair comparison. I'm not talking about things (like Hitler) that the Bible didn't ever address. I'm talking about things (like slavery and genocide) that the Bible did repeatedly address, and in so doing almost never said anything bad about them (except, perhaps, in the context of applying them to the wrong people, i.e., enslaving the Hebrews is bad...).With that assumption, you can't limit it only to the one situation it directly addresses.That may not look like "squinting" or a "nuanced position" to you, but it sure does to me. And doesn't all the pro-slavery stuff also get to be part of the canon? Besides which, why does inclusion in the canon necessarily mean a broad application must be used in interpretation? I must have missed that rule. (And, by that standard, doesn't Jesus condemn all public prayer in Matt 6, since we must interpret this more broadly than the plain text would indicate?)
Jeff:
It is hard to imagine how the Bible could have been written better to speak to such a broad audience over such a broad period of time.Actually, it's pretty easy to imagine, if you try. For example, take out the parts where God tells these people to go slaughter those people. Put in more direct commandments, from the beginning, to treat the least as you would treat the greatest. Chop out all the godawful boring "begats," which generally don't even match anyway. And that's just what I came up with in two minutes, off the top of my head.Many evangelicals barely read Scripture, sadly.I agree in wishing that more would. Present company excluded, I'm generally better-read in scripture than many of the people with whom I debate religion, and I'm an atheist! And man do I wish more would read (and pay attention to) Matt 6 and Matt 7!This is spot on, and following this simple advice will protect one from all kinds of exegetical absurdities.So how does reading, say, Leviticus 15, through the "lense [sic] of Jesus the incarnate word" change its interpretation?Good example.Actually not, for reasons I gave above. :)Further, Tom's rhetorical question seems to miss the point that God's moral law is broken all the time ... even on the things that Tom agrees God did a good job on communicating Well, it's not that I miss that point, it's that that's beside the point. That the Bible never explicitly condemns slavery -- an institution that has oppressed many and been pervasive throughout history and has virtually always hurt far more than it has helped -- strikes me as more than a minor oversight, and nowhere near on the same level as it not giving highly specific warnings against highly specific events, like those David attempts to give as counterexamples.My hunch is that Tom assumes that slavery means the kind of slavery that was practiced in this country in the pre-Civil War era ... which brings up images of cruelty and abuse.Oh, please don't go there. The "Biblical slavery wasn't so bad" argument is absolutely morally bankrupt. (There, I've spoken in absolutist terms, are you happy now?) Sure, some slaves may have been treated well (in the American South as well as in the Ancient Near East), but that doesn't excuse the institution. Anyway, God makes it pretty darn clear what He thinks of slaves. Then again, maybe I'm not reading the "okay to beat 'em as long as you don't kill 'em" verses through the proper "lense."Who knows, perhaps taking a slave, and therefore bringing him into your household and under your care and protection, was a morally virtuous action compared to allowing them to starve to death.The guy who decries moral relativism at every turn makes a relativistic argument in defense of Biblical slavery? That's almost impossible to believe. (And you might not see it as a relativistic arugment, but it absolutely is: Compared to the alternative, this is better. That's at least utilitarian, if not outright relativistic.)
Posted by: tgirsch | December 20, 2005 at 01:33
Jeff and David
Here's the thing. From my perspetive it looks as if you have to range far a field, into history, logic, and commentary, to reach the conclusion that the Bible condmens slavery. It is very, very hard to reconcile that position with the notin that the Bible provides a clear cut, absolute morality. That is the heart of my argument with your positions.
Posted by: kevin | December 20, 2005 at 12:18
C'mon Tom, you can do better than that. I put up a serious defeater to your argument and you respond like that?
I am having a very hard time accepting your premise that the institution of slavery is evil for all time in all cases in all cultures.
Especially when I read this:
And Abram said, "You have given me no children; so a servant in my household will be my heir." Gen 15:3
Abram, a virtual Donald Trump of his day in terms of worldly wealth, was going to hand over his immense wealth to his slave. That simply does not square with your premise that slavery is evil in this culture.
Do a little bit of research, and you will find that slaves were members of households. They were to receive the covenant mark and blessings of God's covenant promises. Just look at Genesis 17. It extends God's covenant promises to slaves. They were considered family and members of the household.
I fail to see how an institution that considers persons as members of your family, deserving of your care and protection, fellow recipients of God's covenant promises and blessings, and eligible to inherit your entire estate, as evil.
Instead of dissing me, take some time and research it a bit further. Your research will shatter your stereotypes and presuppositions.
Now where I will take up your moral absolutist cause, is to condemn abuse in all cultures over all time.
Leviticus 15, and many other passages, show that abuse is not to be condoned.
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 20, 2005 at 12:27
I put up a serious defeater to your argument and you respond like that?I'm sorry, but you did no such thing.I am having a very hard time accepting your premise that the institution of slavery is evil for all time in all cases in all cultures.s/slavery/abortion/g
But at least we're getting somewhere, and it leads to you (at least) having a Biblically consistent position: slavery isn't necessarily wrong. That frightens me, but it's at least Biblically consistent.I fail to see how an institution that considers persons as members of your family, deserving of your care and protection, fellow recipients of God's covenant promises and blessings, and eligible to inherit your entire estate, as evil.And I fail to see how an institution such as the one you describe is consistent with Exodus 21 (which you conveniently ignored). There you'll see that Hebrew servants are considered to be fundamentally different than other slaves, and that the latter group gets nothing approaching the level of treatment reserved for the former. And note, too, that these proscriptions for treatment come directly from the mouth of God. So you'll forgive me if I find your latest tack to be less than convincing.Instead of dissing me, take some time and research it a bit further.I only resorted to "dissing" you (and David) after you repeatedly dodged the issue (at least in my opinion, and Kevin seems to agree; lest you think Kevin agreeing with me is a gimme, we generally disagree on matters religious and scriptural).
Posted by: tgirsch | December 20, 2005 at 15:28
"I'm sorry, but you did no such thing."
In fact, I did. Your lack of a response, shows me that you have not done serious research into the practice of slavery in ancient Israel.
"That frightens me"
It need not. There really is nothing frightening about taking people into your family, making them heirs, and making them fellow recipients of God's covenant promises and blessings.
"And I fail to see how an institution such as the one you describe is consistent with Exodus 21 (which you conveniently ignored)."
Exodus 21 does nothing to over turn my argument. It provides for instructions on how to handle the year of jubilee. It does not contravene any of my points. Interestingly, it makes a proviso for slaves to choose slavery over freedom. Seems like an odd thing to do for an institution which is objectively evil. In fact, look at all the trouble a slave has to go through to be retained as a slave. He has to have his ear riven with an awl. Sounds kinda painful to me. Why on earth would someone elect to go through this torture just so that he could be retained as a slave?
You totally ignored Genesis 15, 17 ... and now provided more evidence in Exodus 21 that slavery as practiced in ancient Israel was nothing like slavery practiced in America.
Perhaps that is why there is no 11th commandment condemning slavery. It would have made no sense to condemn such a practice.
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 20, 2005 at 19:38
OK, then, we'll put you on record: From a Biblical perspective, slavery is not objectively evil.There really is nothing frightening about taking people into your family, making them heirs, and making them fellow recipients of God's covenant promises and blessings.But there is something very frightening about equating them with property. But if God's acceptance of beating slaves half to death being acceptable as long as you don't beat them all the way to death doesn't bother you, then I suppose it shouldn't bother me.
And I must admit, you've got me: where do you get the "year of Jubilee" stuff? My annotated Bible simply lists the section as concering "personal injury," and I don't see Jubilee even mentioned until Leviticus 25.
Further, you seem to have completely ignored the fact that Hebrew servants are considered vastly different than other slaves. It is the Hebrew servant that you make an heir, and who can voluntarily remain a servant. Heck, the NIV even uses a different word ("servant" versus "slave") to differentiate between the two.
As to Genesis (and Exodus 21), I've already addressed this, even if you ignored it or misunderstood it. Enslaving the Hebrews by the Egyptians is clearly against God's will, but that goes to my above point that God only seems to get upset if you enslave the wrong people. He doesn't seem to have a problem with slavery in general (or if He does, He never says so). See also Lev 25 -- the Jubilee part to which you seem to have referred, where the "do's and don'ts" of slavery are spelled out. It pretty clearly spells out that foreign slaves are okay, but Israelite slaves are not. Ditto for 2 Chronicles. Same again for Jeremiah 34.
The picture is actually quite consistent, and I suggest that it is you who need to do some research. The "kinder, gentler" slavery to which you are referring is Biblically reserved for the Hebrews and Israelites. All others are subject to the more traditional slaves-as-property interpretation. That you refuse to see this does not make it any less true.
At the least, you can try to explain how Exodus 21:20-21 is consistent with the picture of God-condoned slavery you're trying to paint.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 20, 2005 at 23:54
"But there is something very frightening about equating them with property."
I am glad to hear you say that. Because that is the exact same argument that pro-choice apologists use. The unborn child is the mother's property and she gets to decide if her unborn son or unborn daughter lives or dies. Her property. Her choice. For some reason, it does not frighten you in that setting.
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 21, 2005 at 07:57
"OK, then, we'll put you on record: From a Biblical perspective, slavery is not objectively evil."
Please do. But only after you esplain that slavery as practiced in ancient Israel was the social security system of its day. It was a welfare system. It enabled the poor and disenfranchised the opportunity to be accepted into families that could offer them protection, food, care, covenantal blessings, and even the possibility of inheriting the owner's entire estate.
If you do that, it will make more sense. If you don't, then they will probably assume all of the same things you do ... e.g. slavery = American slavery .... i.e. racism / abuse / cruelty / dehumanization etc.
We would not want them to leap to the wrong conclusion.
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 21, 2005 at 08:12
I'll have to respond to your scripture references later ... priorities are calling.
By the way, when do David and I get to put you on the witness stand and cross examine you over your view of slavery?
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 21, 2005 at 10:13
Jeff:The unborn child is the mother's property and she gets to decide if her unborn son or unborn daughter lives or dies.I don't know who you've ever heard argue this way, because I certainly have never done so. Abortion is not (to my mind) a property rights issue, but (primarily) a personal autonomy issue. Should a woman be allowed to decide whether or not to have children? This question has nothing to do with "property." The other thing that comes into play is what happens when the interests of the unborn child conflict with the interests of the woman carrying it? If you have to choose one or the other, which gets priority?slavery = American slavery .... i.e. racism / abuse / cruelty / dehumanization etc.Except that this is exactly the picture painted of slavery in the Bible for everyone except the Hebrews/Israelites. It's okay to take slaves from foreign lands (racism); it's okay to beat them as long as you don't kill them (abuse / cruelty); your slave is your property (dehumanization). All of these conditions are listed in the plain text of the Bible. And, in fact, those were used to defend slavery right here in America.By the way, when do David and I get to put you on the witness stand and cross examine you over your view of slavery?When it's relevant, which right now, it isn't. The topic that's been consuming us for most of this thread is whether or not morality comes from God. If it does, then the only insight we have into morality is the scripture, which is our only authoritative word of God. If the Bible says something is wrong, it's wrong. If the Bible doesn't say it's wrong, it isn't wrong.
The whole point of bringing slavery into the equation was to illustrate the fact that in order to come to the conclusion that slavery is wrong, you not only have to go outside of what scripture teaches, you have to ignore large segments of what scripture teaches.
The "what is my view of slavery" thing, in that regard, is a waste of time, because what you really want to get at is "what is my source of morality," or, more directly "how do I determine what's moral and what's not?" And the answer boils down to the same way you do; you just don't realize it. And by "it," I mean the extent to which your morality comes from extra-biblical sources. Those extra-Biblical sources that help you conclude that slavery is wrong, and that genocide is wrong, are the same sources I use in determining morality.
Posted by: tgirsch | December 21, 2005 at 18:34
Just expounding on that last paragraph a bit, way back on December 10, David wrote "So for you, what's the source [of morality]?" And my ill-phrased response led to the lengthy discussion we've been having since. The succinct answer is my source of morality is roughly the same as yours. We may attribute it differently, but the source is ultimately the same. In day-to-day life, we all use roughly the same process to determine whether or not something is moral. This is especially true (in your case) for those topics on which scripture is silent, or on which it is ambiguous.
Now what that source actually is, irrespective of what any of us decides to call it, is a very detailed matter indeed, as I alluded to way back on the 10th. But nonetheless, we're using the same source, and we're probably both at least partially wrong about what that source actually is. :)
Posted by: tgirsch | December 21, 2005 at 18:45
"Should a woman be allowed to decide whether or not to have children?"
That question is only relevant to a woman who is not pregnant. A pregnant woman already has a child. She is already a mother. The question is, does a mother get decide if her child lives or dies?
Posted by: Mr. Dawntreader | December 27, 2005 at 11:47